adventurecapitalist
New member
- Joined
- Dec 30, 2016
- Messages
- 5
No, if you started with 1 (so that 1 is 100% of your clients) and got 2 more then you have 200% more.
No, you are not. 2 more is 200% more. Forgetting percents, are you clear on the distinction between "two times as much" and "two times more"?
If you start with 1 and get two more you have three times as much.You are confusing two separate ideas. "80%" more us 0.80 times more. That would be 180% or 1.8 of the original amount.
4 times A would be 4A= A+ A+ A+ A= A+ 3A so would be a 300% increase (I have no idea how you got 800%).
No you 40 more clients which is 4(10) so this is 400%. more.
First calculate how much more expensive: $3200- 1500= $1700. The second computer cost $1700 more than the first. And since that first one cost $1500 that is \(\displaystyle \dfrac{1700}{1500}= \dfrac{17}{15} \ = \)1.13 times as much or 113% more. (Those are rounded from 1.133333333333333....)
Thank you very much for your detailed response. I didn't realize the correlation between the "blank TIMES more" and "blank PERCENT more" was so direct...
From what you explained, I understand that...
80% more = .8 times more
200% more = 2 times more
You are confusing two separate ideas. "80%" more us 0.80 times more. That would be 180% or 1.8 of the original amount.
It's not so much that I am "confusing" 2 separate ideas (although I do agree I was not clear) - rather that I was trying to find an EQUATION to translate BETWEEN the two ideas (those 2 ideas being "___ PERCENT more" and "____ TIMES more". I know they are different, but I was wondering if there was an equation to translate one into the other.
From what you explained it seems the translation is more simple...:
80% more = .8 times more
100% more = 1 times more (this one doesn't seem right though...)
200% more = 2 times more
... am I right in understanding that was what you are saying?
